Art of Problem Solving

Division of Zero by Zero: Difference between revisions

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'''Division of Zero by Zero''', is an unexplained mystery, since decades in the field of mathematics and is [[indeterminate]]. This is been a great mystery to solve for any mathematician and rather to use '''limits''' to set value of Zero by Zero in '''[[differential calculus]]''' one of the Indian-Mathematical-Scientist '''[[Jyotiraditya Jadhav]]''' has got correct solution set for the process with a proof.  
'''Division of Zero by Zero''', is a mathematical concept and is [[indeterminate]].


== About Zero and it's Operators ==
== Proof of Indeterminacy ==


=== Discovery ===
We let <math>x=\frac{0}{0}</math>. Rearranging, we get <math>x\cdot0=0</math> there are infinite solutions for this.
The first recorded '''zero''' appeared in Mesopotamia around 3 B.C. The Mayans invented it independently circa 4 A.D. It was later devised in India in the mid-fifth century, spread to Cambodia near the end of the seventh century, and into China and the Islamic countries at the end of the eighth


=== Operators ===
"'''Zero''' and its '''operation''' are first '''defined''' by [Hindu astronomer and mathematician] Brahmagupta in 628," said Gobets. He developed a symbol for '''zero''': a dot underneath numbers.
== Detailed proof ==
We will form two solution sets (namely set(A) and set(B))
Solution set(A):
If we divide zero by zero then
<math>0/0</math>
We can write the 0 in the numerator as <math>(1-1) </math> and in the denominator as <math>(1-1)</math>,
=<math>(1-1)/(1-1)</math> equaling <math>1</math>
We can then write the 0 in the numerator as <math>(2-2) </math> and in the denominator as <math>(1-1)</math>,
=<math>(2-2)/(1-1)  </math>
= <math>2 (1-1)/(1-1) </math>                                                              [Taking 2 as common]
= <math>2 </math>
We can even write the 0 in the numerator as <math>( \infty- \infty) </math> and in the denominator as <math>(1-1)</math>,
=<math>( \infty-\infty)/(1-1) </math>
= <math> \infty(1-1)/(1-1) </math>                                                            [Taking <math> \infty</math> as common]
= <math> \infty</math>
So, the solution set(A) comprises of all real numbers.
set(A) = <math>\{- \infty.....-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3.... \infty\}  </math>
Solution set(B):
If we divide zero by zero then
<math>0/0</math>
We know that the actual equation is <math>0^1/0^1 </math>
=<math>0^1/0^1 </math>
= 0^(1-1)                                                                              [Laws of Indices, <math>a^m/a^n = a^{m-n} </math>]
= <math>0^0 </math>
=<math>1 </math>                                                                                        [https://brilliant.org/wiki/what-is-00| Already proven]
So, the solution set(B) is a singleton set
set(B) =<math>\{1\} </math>
Now we can get a finite value to division of <math>0/0 </math> by taking the intersection of both the solution sets.
Let the final solution set be <math>F </math>
<math>A\bigcap B </math> = <math>F </math>
<math>\{- \infty.....-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3....\infty\}  </math> <math>\bigcap </math> <math>\{1\} </math>
<math>F </math> = <math>\{1\} </math>
Hence proving <math>0/0 =1 </math>


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Latest revision as of 17:03, 14 February 2025

Division of Zero by Zero, is a mathematical concept and is indeterminate.

Proof of Indeterminacy

We let $x=\frac{0}{0}$. Rearranging, we get $x\cdot0=0$ there are infinite solutions for this.


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